Tuesday, January 04, 2011


given two logical statements $P$ and $Q$, it turns out that
$$(P \to Q) \vee (Q \to P)$$ is a tautology. i probably need more sleep (or a longer winter break) but the first time around, i misinterpreted this as "given any two logical statements, one must imply the other."

on a related note, this term i'm teaching an "introduction to proofs" class, which surprised me. the department actually trusts me to train a new batch of potential maths majors.

(i guess i have to be responsible, then ..!)

the first class is tomorrow. right afterwards, i'm leaving for the airport. the timing is painful. i prepared four lectures today: two for tomorrow (proofs class, linear algebra class) and two for my friday substitutes.

(this is exactly why i hate traveling.)

anyway: for those of you headed to the joint meetings, i might see you there!

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