given two logical statements $P$ and $Q$, it turns out that
$$(P \to Q) \vee (Q \to P)$$
is a tautology. i probably need more sleep (or a longer winter break) but the first time around, i misinterpreted this as "given any two logical statements, one must imply the other."
on a related note, this term i'm teaching an "introduction to proofs" class, which surprised me. the department actually trusts me to train a new batch of potential maths majors.
(i guess i have to be responsible, then ..!)
the first class is tomorrow. right afterwards, i'm leaving for the airport. the timing is painful. i prepared four lectures today: two for tomorrow (proofs class, linear algebra class) and two for my friday substitutes.
(this is exactly why i hate traveling.)
anyway: for those of you headed to the joint meetings, i might see you there!
No comments:
Post a Comment